R0379-2 Questions And Answers

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Ques.—I am told that it cannot be proved that the Hebrew name Jehovah, is the distinctive name for the Almighty Father; but that it is applied only to Christ. Can you give a satisfactory answer to this statement?

Ans.—It is the opinion of some that the Hebrew word el applies to our Heavenly Father, while the name Jehovah applies to Christ. This is just the reverse of the truth, however. The Hebrew words el, and elohim, are general terms, meaning mighty ones. They are applied to Jehovah, to Jesus, to angels, and to men. (See April No.—”The Word of God.”) Not so with the word Jehovah, however. We cite a very few out of the many, to prove that this name belongs alone to the great first cause of all things: Isa. 42:8. “I am the Lord (Heb. Jehovah); that is MY name, and my glory will I not give to another.” Exod. 15:3, “The Lord (Jehovah) is a man of war; the Lord (Jehovah) is his name.” Exod. 6:3, “I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God (el) Almighty (sheddai); but by my name JEHOVAH, was I not known to them.” Psa. 83:18, “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the Most High over all the earth.”

Jehovah is frequently represented as the Saviour of mankind; that is, he was emphatically the Saviour in that he provided a Redeemer in the person of Christ. Thus we read, Isa. 43:3,11, “For I am the Lord (Jehovah) thy God, the Holy One of Israel, thy Saviour.” … “I, even I, am the Lord (Jehovah), and beside me there is no Saviour.” Hos. 13:4, “I am the Lord (Jehovah) thy God, from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no God but me, for there is no Saviour beside me.” Jesus is also called our Saviour, and properly so, in that he was the willing agent for the accomplishment of Jehovah’s plans.

We confidently assert that the name Jehovah is never applied in Scripture to any but the Father. It is for those who claim the reverse to give a text, and show its applicability to Jesus or any one else than the Father. Here is a way to prove the matter conclusively—the New Testament writers quote much from the Old Testament; do they ever quote a passage in which the word Jehovah occurs, and apply it to Jesus? We claim that they do not. On the contrary, we will give one out of many similar quotations, in which it is clearly applied, not to Jesus, but to the Father. Psa. 110:1. “The Lord (Jehovah) said unto my Lord (adon—master) sit thou,” etc. Note carefully the application of this by Jesus (Luke 20:41-44), and by Peter. (Acts 2:34-36, and 33.) This one text is sufficient until answered. If any one can twist it, we have others ready.

Ques. Please explain Rev. 20:8. Is it to be understood that Satan, at the close of the Millennial age, will deceive a multitude as the sand of the sea?

Ans. It says he went out to deceive—to deceive all: all were a great multitude, as the sand of the sea. We are not informed what proportion of all he succeeded in deceiving.


— August, 1882 —